Re: King James VI and I

["Iain Laird" <iain@iain-laird.co.uk>]

To further complicate matters, as a result of his marriage to Mary (Queen of
Scots) the French Dauphin, François in 1558, when he was crowned the
following year, he claimed to be King of Scotland and England as well as
France. (Mary was descended from Henry VII of England.)  7,000 French troops
arrived in Scotland in 1548 and were there for 7 years.  Most of Europe
regarded Elizabeth I of England as illegitimate.

Iain

Scotland's Story - Tom Steel 1984

----- Original Message -----
From: "John S. Quarterman" <jsq@matrix.net>
To: <sinclair@matrix.net>
Sent: Saturday, April 21, 2001 6:32 PM
Subject: Re: King James 1


> > Please can a more learned person, tell me when King James I of Scotland,
> >who
> > was also King James 5 of England,
>
> It was the other way around.  He was James VI of Scotland and James I
> of England.
>
> > became King of France?
> > Really am enjoying the time line.
> > Thanks
> > Myrna Sinclair
>
> This is probably a holdover from when Henry V of England gained the
> crown of France for his son, Henry VI.  Kings of England called themselves
> also Kings of France for a long time thereafter, even after they lost all
> of their land in France.
>
> Elizabeth I of England, James' predecessor, styled herself
>   ELIZABETH by the Grace of God of England, Fraunce and Ireland Queene,
>   defender of the faith, &c.
> See:
>  http://www.yale.edu/lawweb/avalon/raleigh.htm
>


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