Re: King of France

["Spirit One Email" <laurel@spiritone.com>]

Myrna and I have been discussing this King of France entry in her Bible.  I
discovered that all of mine did also.  I had not noticed this before.  So
how did the high and mighty Prince James claim France as his kingdom and why
not mention Scotland unless he had already grouped it mentally with England.
If so, wouldn't Ireland be viewed the same way?   Did England still claim a
bit of territory in Normandy as late as 1611?
  This claim to 3 monarchies perhaps has many political implications:   I
just found this in "The Lives of the Kings & Queens of England" by Antonia
Fraser:
"Though James assumed the title of King of Great Britain, the Commons were
not prepared to concede equal rights to the Scots; nor would they accept a
plan put forward by the King's government--..."  (this might be the reason
Scotland isn't mentioned)

"he had an irritating way of making exaggerated claims for the rights of the
monarchy...divine right of monarchs....."  Do we see between the lines that
he was still making claims to the old Normandy lands as "King of France"?

>From Encyclopedia Britannica  "Jamestown, the first permanent English
settlement in America, was named in his honor.  But James showed an interest
in colonies only in Northern Ireland, where he seized land from Irish
Catholics and gave it to English and Scottish Protestants"   This might
indicate then why he billed himself as King of Ireland.  Funny he didn't
claim North America as well :-)

Laurel
==================
 Dear Laurel,
 Thanks again for responding.
 the bible says
TO THE MOST HIGH AND MIGHTY PRINCE
            JAMES ( in much larger letters)
    by the grace of god,
 KING OF GREAT BRITAIN, FRANCE, AND IRELAND,
    defender of the faith,( this phrase in letters smaller than the
above)&c.
 I guess it means God as king, but is worded strangely.
 Joy to you,
 Myrna





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